Thank you for all the insightful answers and comments on the question! If a backward and illogical action has taken place in formally resolving a precept (prior to determining the budget at another, later properly convened meeting), would the precept decision need to be rescinded by special resolution towards being able to satisfy the imminent financial certification requirements and procedural expectations? And if it wasn't rescinded, then does that jeopardise the integrity of the entire budget-setting process and put all members at risk of predetermination - and should those Members who voted for the precept recuse themselves from voting on the budget?