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0 votes
We have a councillor who has abstained from votes now declaring an interest.
The interest is that they rent a council property over the road to one planning application for a shop and the next application is on a “green” where the property is.
is there any lawful reason why they can’t vote?
there’s no pecuniary interest is there?
by (120 points)
edited by

2 Answers

0 votes
It doesn't look like there is a pecuniary interest but the councillor has every right to abstain or not vote if they wish.  You can't force someone to vote (although I don't understand why they would want to be a councillor if they can't make decisions).
by (25.2k points)
0 votes
Does the Councillor know the owner/applicant/developer or neighbour of? Perhaps they feel uncomfortable making a public show of support for either party.
Personally I don’t understand people in positions such as Councillor who refuse to vote because they become so to represent the people even if it’s a tough decision. That said they do have the right to abstain.
by (5.4k points)
Surely where there are grey areas councillors should be governed by their requirement of integrity, honesty and openness. Not too difficult if one follows the the requirements of the council's standing orders and codes of conduct. I personally do not see why many councils do not incorporate into minutes how each councillor voted on a particular matter stating who was for, against and abstained a motion. This would give a totally transparent record of individual councillors actions and hold them accountable to those they represent. Which is after all what they are there for.
Mentor man I totally agree with your comments

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