Probably not. You cite the example of a councillor 'representing' the council. Was it expected that in order for him to represent the council, he would need to purchase the item to which you refer? If so, the councillor would have been given authority to expend the funds when he was appointed to 'represent'. In this case, the item would have been paid for by the council and would therefore already belong to it. If it was purchased out of the councillor's own pocket but then wished to transfer it to the council, the latter could pass a resolution to purchase it. Council procedure (and indeed, the law) would not entitle the councillor to claim for what he had given away.