A notice has just been published online today from our parish council chairman calling an extraordinary meeting for the council to discuss replacing the present clerk, interviewing candidates that evening, approving salary and pension for the chosen person, writing an appropriate contract etc.
All of this out comes of the blue to parishioners even though it has now been revealed that the clerk resigned some two months ago. It appears she and the chairman decided to keep the matter under wraps.
The fact of her resignation has never appeared on either of the agendas for the past two full council meetings, and therefore no resolution regarding any/all aspects of her resignation has been addressed and agreed by members of the council attending in person and voting by a show of hands at a properly convened council meeting.
Even though no agreement by the council has been discussed or resolved upon within a properly convened council meeting to accept the clerk's resignation, the council has apparently already advertised the vacancy on our local ALC/SLCC websites - but not published it on the council website or any of the village noticeboards.
As a result of the ALC advertisement, the parish council has received several applications that – according to the published agenda - will be considered and decided upon at the extraordinary meeting to be held next Tuesday.
The present clerk's resignation and notice period involve financial decisions by the council. As that is the case, it follows that no decisions can be made by one councillor on any matter of council business acting outside convened council meetings.
Yet that is exactly whatever our council chairman has done - he has decided that he has the authority to do 'secret squirrel' deals with the council's employee over the heads of six councillors and their electors.
All the arrangements to fill the post - including acceptance of the clerk's resignation - have been carried out in private during discussions between the clerk and the chairman of the council.
Am I correct in believing that the chairman of the council acting alone is not the employer of the clerk? Surely the council as a whole is the clerk's employer. If that is the case, how can the chairman have made any decisions about the employment of the council's clerk (it's only employee) off his own bat?
He has also given permission for the clerk to work a three-month period of notice (fully salaried), when her contract requires one month's notice only? Surely this is a decision with financial implications that only the council can made by resolution it as a published agenda item in a parish council meeting?
Any comments gratefully received from a concerned elector.